Very interesting, thank you. May I ask: why is a 28 day period chosen? Is this standard? Is it on the basis that after 28 days the incidence (of any putative side effect) returns to ‘normal’? Which seems....somewhat circular given that ‘normal’ is defined by reference to what happens after the 28 day period?
Very interesting, thank you. May I ask: why is a 28 day period chosen? Is this standard? Is it on the basis that after 28 days the incidence (of any putative side effect) returns to ‘normal’? Which seems....somewhat circular given that ‘normal’ is defined by reference to what happens after the 28 day period?
It is arbitrary -- see part 2...